Forward Observer Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• How many primary methods of target location are identified?
• Fire support coordination measures are designed to facilitate rapid engagement of targets while safeguarding friendly forces.
• In a Shift From a Known Point fire mission, who needs to know the Observer's location?
• Which of the following describes the capabilities of a 120mm mortar system?
• What is the 1000-meter grid square identifier for Fort Lewis?
• What is the Universal Transverse Mercator (UTM) grid for the Yakima Training Center?
• Which smoke characteristic is used for signaling on the battlefield?
• How many elements to the call-for-fire are there?
• The two types of precision missions are ____ and ____.
• Which statement about ICM deviation thresholds is correct?
• Which of the following describes essential fire support tasks?
• Which term describes a Planned Target other than a Scheduled Target on which fire is to be delivered when requested?
• Define - On-Call Targets.
• What is the maximum range in meters for the M119 105mm howitzer?
• Redundant observers in defense planning are intended to trigger or execute essential fires tasks.
• Which factor is added to normal mission reaction times to account for target range?
• Which pair correctly matches the weapon to its DANGER CLOSE distance?
• Define - Program.
• In a standard fires paragraph, which element quantifies the expected result and provides the basis for assessment?
• The radial arm of an OF fan extends to a measurement of _______ meters.
• An Informal ACA is normally NOT depicted on charts and maps.
• What is the maximum detection range for rockets by the Q-36 in kilometers?
• In an illumination mission, if the illumination round burns out 20 meters above the ground and the OT factor is 3, what is your correction?
• GRID NORTH is defined as which of the following?
• Which item is NOT among the corrections listed as a Subsequent Correction?
• Which statement is true about DANGER CLOSE distances?
• Which of the following is NOT a Field Artillery Standard Tactical Mission?
• How many Fire Support Coordination Measures (FSCM) are there?
• Which pair of corrections are used for shifts in Call For Fire, covering range and elevation?
• What is the purpose of the fighter check-in brief?
• Which of the following is a field expedient method when determining direction?
• Which is the greatest DANGER CLOSE distance listed?
• What is the purpose of labeling a terrain sketch with Description, Direction, Distance, Altitude, and Grid?
• What is the maximum range of the AN/TVQ-2 GNLLD (DISMOUNTED)?
• What is the preferred artillery munition when attacking tanks?
• Which of the following is true regarding deception fires?
• Which unit is used for angular measurements in this practice?
• Define fire support planning
• While adjusting your 105mm FPF (manual FDC, platoon 4 gun), you notice in the first volley that Gun #1 and Gun #3 within the sheaf impacted closest to your planned FPF line which gun do you adjust first?
• Which formula expresses distance as the target size divided by the angular size in mils?
• In defense, is it acceptable to position BN/CO mortars forward initially to allow for deeper engagements of enemy forces?
• When adjusting an FPF using a manual FDC, after the first rounds have impacted, which gun is adjusted first?
• Which weapon has a DANGER CLOSE distance of 750 meters?
• Cannot be determined
• Which option represents a correct element you would include in a Call For Fire (CFF)?
• A coordinated fire line (CFL) is established by a ___.
• Which statement correctly states the 105mm Howitzer’s maximum ranges for HE and RAP?
• The maximum range for a M119 105mm howitzer is ____ meters.
• Boundaries are considered permissive and restrictive fire support. Coordination measures.
• On a Target List Work Sheet, work columns are used for what?
• Which list correctly names the five items used to label a T on a terrain sketch?
• The armed OH-58D can carry what type of machine gun?
• What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for the 16-inch weapon?
• How many methods are there for determining the speed of a moving target?
• What is the normal mission reaction time for Targets of Opportunity?
• What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for Naval 5 in?
• In the concept of fires, EFSTs are integrated with the Scheme of Maneuver to achieve the commander’s intent. Which statement best describes EFSTs?
• Using ADAMS projectile (M692 or M731), how many anti-personnel mines are in each projectile?
• What is the max range in meters for the M120 / 120 MM mortar firing HE?
• The AN/TPQ-36 Fire Finder Radar System is most accurate against which target type?
• True or False: The sustained rate of fire for a 105mm howitzer is three rounds per minute.
• What is the maximum range of the AN/PVS-6 MELIOS?
• T or F - The mission of Fire Support is the collective and coordinated employment of the fires of armed aircraft, land- and sea-based indirect fire systems, and electronic warfare (EW) systems against ground targets to support land combat operations.
• In the hand measurement of angular deviation, what is the value for Whole Hand extended (meters)?
• When transmitting line 4 of the 9 line CAS Briefing, it is sent in ____.
• What is the Danger Close distance for Naval Gunfire (5 inch or smaller)?
• In the hand measurement of angular deviation, what is the value for Four Fingers (meters)?
• "Attached" means that those individuals/teams/units are placed under control of a different HQ for the purpose of tactical operations on a temporary basis; this HQ commands and controls, but does not provide logistics, admin, or personnel support.
• What is the doctrinal memory aid used when developing the 'method' for a standard fires paragraph?
• A linear target symbol indicates that the target is more than ___ meters but less than ___ meters.
• You are engaging mortars in defilade and wish to shoot high angle. In which element would you request high angle?
• You are conducting the time portion of an impact and time registration and spot one airburst and 3 graze bursts. What is your correction?
• The front view of a T-72 tank is 3.6 meters and you measure it as being 4 mils in your binoculars. What is the estimated distance to the tank?
• Using the hand measurement of angular deviation, 3 fingers represent ____ mils.
• T or F - The basic fire support tasks are the follows: support forces in contact, support the concept of operations, synchronize fir support, and sustain fire support operations.
• In a nine-line CAS brief, which option corresponds to the line for Location of Friendly unit's?
• Which two terms describe types of Close Air Support (CAS) requests?
• When additional accuracy is required, the observer should obtain an 8 digit grid target location.
• What is the normal mission reaction time for Priority Targets?
• Name the 15 Subsequent Corrections.
• Which of the following is a recognized method of target location?
• Define - Scheduled Target.
• Typically the method is described by covering three categories. Which are they?
• Which option is a planning consideration to ensure continuity of fires in breaching operations?
• What is the max range in meters for the M224 / 60mm mortar firing HE?
• An RFL is a line established between converging friendly forces that prohibits fires, or their effects, across the line without coordination with the affected force. This statement is:
• The maximum range for detecting for the Q36 is __ for artillery and mortars and ___ for rockets in kilometers.
• DANGER CLOSE is associated with which Call For Fire element?
• The AH-64 is capable of firing which combination of weapons?
• Which option is a planning consideration for fires in defense with engagement areas (EAs)?
• What is the normal mission reaction time for On-Call Targets?
• Which statement about fire support coordination measures is false?
• A Target of Opportunity can be engaged by ground, naval, or aircraft fire.
• A ___ is a line between two converging forces, No fires ( direct or indirect) or their effects across the line are allowed without coordination with the affected force.
• What is the maximum range of the AN/TAS-4B Night Sight (DISMOUNTED)?
• The 'Effect' portion of a standard fires paragraph attempts to quantify the successful accomplishment of the task and provides the basis for the assess function in D3A.
• Because of the size of the effects pattern for ICM, deviation shifts of less than 50m and range corrections of less than 100m should not be made.
• T or F - Fire planning for a deliberate attack typically adheres to the top-down with bottom-up refinement methodology.
• In a basic Call for Fire, which elements are transmitted?
• When planning an FPF, the FSO/FSNCO should ensure the indirect FPF is fully integrated with his maneuver commander's direct fire weapons plan with consideration for final protective line, primary direction of fire, grazing fire and mostly likely/most dangerous avenue of approach for the enemy.
• How many mils can the Q36 search at one time?
• What does FPF stand for in fire support planning?
• Who may establish the Fire Support Coordination Line (FSCL)?
• During offensive operations, FSOs/FSNCOs should be prepared to plan fires ISO breaching operations using SOSR-A; what does the acronym SOSR-A mean?
• ADAMS projectiles are configured with how many anti-personnel mines per round?
• What fuze setting should be used while adjusting your FPF? Why?
• Which factors influence the effectiveness of smoke?
• Triggers are an essential part of fire plan development for offensive operations; what is the basic computational formula (math step) for triggering the initiation and shifting of fires?
• Which option completes the phrase: The two types of precision missions are ____ and ____?
• What is the danger close distance for Naval 16-inch ICM?
• What is the max range in meters for the M119 Howitzer firing RAP?
• Fire support assets are generally more responsive in supporting defensive operations when they are centrally controlled.
• When adjusting a quick smoke mission onto a targeted location, what round is used in your initial adjustment phase?
• A 8-digit grid location provides higher accuracy than a 4-digit grid location.
• Which is the correct expansion of SOSRA?
• True or False: The FSO will determine the firing unit(s) to attack and the method of attack for each target using the target list work sheet, overlays, and commander's guidance.
• Which of the following best describes the Q-36's primary function?
• Which weapon is associated with a DANGER CLOSE distance of 750 meters?
• Which phrase indicates a FA priority target in the remarks?
• What is the first thing you draw on the terrain sketch?
• Which listed maximum range is the greatest?
• The Q-36 is optimized to locate which type weapons systems?
• Which distance is correctly matched with its weapon's DANGER CLOSE value?
• How many cardinal directions are there on a standard compass?
• Preparation fires can be used for what purposes?
• What unit is used to express the Q-36 search sector?
• Which combination lists the three permissive Fire Support Coordination Measures?
• What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for Mortar?
• Which formula is used to compute the angular deviation between the OT line and the known point?
• What is the max range in meters for the M198 Howitzer firing RAP M549A1?
• During an adjustment of Final Protective Fire after the first volley, which round is used to begin the adjustment?
• What is the maximum range for the 120mm mortar system?
• Which fire support target category has the longest normal mission reaction time?
• In the Remarks block, marking Mortar PRI TGT indicates what?
• What is the armament of the AC-130H model?
• A naval gunfire call for fire is sent in how many transmissions?
• During breaching planning, what is the purpose of using smoke?
• What are the standard offensive operations?
• Which statement about RAAMS rounds and anti-armor mines is accurate?
• The maximum rate of fire for 60mm mortars is ____ rounds per minute for ___ minutes.
• Which term describes the point at which a timed run begins?
• Which statement is true about the first step in drawing a terrain sketch?
• The observer announces the difference in the vertical shift if it is greater than how many meters?
• Which term describes the predetermined attack of targets of a similar nature?
• Once the aircraft is within communication range, the fighter transmits a ____ to the observer controller.
• During the impact portion of a Registration, what are the automatic refinement corrections for the following cases: nearest to the first fired rounds, equidistant between two sets, or nearer the far end?
• SOSRA stands for?
• Normally indirect fires would be used to reinforce which type of wire obstacles?
• What is the equation used to measure distance using the flash-to-bang method?
• What is the maximum range of the 105mm Howitzer?
• You are doing a precision registration and have your 2 rounds over and 2 rounds short. the last round fired was nearest to the registration point, what is your refinement?
• Clearance of fires is the process of what?
• In defense, should planners include redundant observers to trigger or execute essential fires tasks?
• The FPF planning size expresses width and depth. Which pair of dimensions is used?
• In forward observer calculations, which combination forms the mil relation formula used to compute deviation in mils?
• Which statement best describes an Immediate CAS request relative to a Preplanned CAS request?
• Which document helps the Fire Support Officer understand how the fire plan supports the scheme of maneuver?
• Which projectile contains anti-personnel mines?
• Which clearance must the observer issue to allow a CAS engagement?
• T or F - Immediate smoke is typically employed against a small area while quick smoke is typically employed against a larger area requiring the observer to inform his firing unit of the target length, the target attitude, the wind direction, and the length of time the smoke is required.
• In a nine-line CAS brief, which line describes the Location of Friendly unit's?
• Which term is best described by 'Movement to Contact' in standard offensive operations?
• What is the primary purpose of SEAD?
• Which option represents a complete list of the five methods for determining direction?
• What are the standard three products required of all fire support plans?
• What is an Essential Fire Support Task?
• Which of the following pairs correctly matches a weapon to its standard FPF depth, for 81mm mortars?
• Which weapon category has the shorter Q-36 detection range?
• If you are estimating distance using a wood line and you can see the tree trunks, main branches are distinguishable, foliage appears as a smooth surface and the outlines of foliage of separate trees are distinguishable, the estimated distance is approximately how many meters?
• Plan for target handoff between units.
• Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of smoke?
• Which term describes a target on which the delivery of fires takes precedence over all other fires?
• What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for the 16-inch weapon?
• Should the observer continually update his terrain sketch?
• Which items are included in the Copperhead mission MTO?
• What DA Form is used to record a standard shelling and bomb report?
• RAAMS projectiles are configured with how many anti-armor mines per round?
• If a gunnery liaison references DANGER CLOSE for a 16-inch weapon, the distance is approximately?
• Two or more targets on which simultaneous fires are desired is known as a SERIES.
• Which measure protects friendly forces waiting to move through breach lane?
• The command used to report incorrect data for the last salvo is:
• What is the standard FPF depth for 60mm mortars?
• You are adjusting a time round and the spotting is a graze. What is your automatic correction after already having a previous airburst?
• A target that appears during combat against fires not planned is known as a:
• When conducting a mortar registration and the observer breaks the 50 meter bracket, what is his next correction?
• Which of the following is NOT a basic fire support task?
• What is the area with specific restrictions where fires that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing headquarters called?
• Which type of smoke mission would be used to mask friendly movement?
• The MELIOS can determine ranges from which distance range?
• A ____ is a concise, easy planning tool, which shows the many factors of a complicated fire support plan and it helps the FSO and the commander understand how the fire plan supports and scheme of maneuver.
• The roles of the Field Artillery include Close Support and Attack in Depth and which additional function?
• What are the Danger Close distances for Mortars, Naval Gunfire (5 inch or smaller), and Artillery?
• The speed of sound used in the flash-to-bang method is approximately how many meters per second?
• In the hand measurement of angular deviation, what is the value for Two Fingers (meters)?
• FSCMs are designed to facilitate the rapid engagement of targets and provide safeguards for friendly forces. What are the two types of FSCMs?
• Which statement lists the items included in the MTO for a Copperhead mission?
• What is a trigger?
• What is the multiplier used in the flash-to-bang distance calculation?
• The two types of airspace coordination areas are ____ and _____.
• Which of the following is NOT a listed DANGER CLOSE distance?
• Name the three portions of the CFF Warning Order.
• In SEAD planning, what is the purpose of covering ingress and egress prior to aircraft reaching the threat until out of the threat fan?
• SEAD stands for which of the following?
• Which platform is capable of firing Hellfire missiles?
• An Informal ACA is commonly used and is not depicted on charts, and can be established by using which separations?
• The armed OH-58D can carry what type of machine guns?
• Name the two methods of crater analysis for low angle (artillery) fire.
• During a Shift From a Known Point Call For Fire the range shift (add or drop) is expressed to the nearest ____ meters and the vertical shift (up or down) is expressed to the nearest ____ meters?
• The Initial Point (IP) is defined as the point at which the aircraft starts its timed run at the target.
• The planning size (width and depth) of an FPF of a 120 mm 4 gun mortar platoon is ____ meters by ___ meters.
• To authorize the aircraft to attack the ground, the observer must announce which clearance?
• The fighter check-in brief is transmitted to which entity?
• True or False: A weapon system can typically handle more than one Final Protective Fire at a time.
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five methods of determining direction?
• What basic question does the Method portion of a fires paragraph answer?
• In a basic Call for Fire, the transmissions are grouped into three groups: Observer ID and Warning Order; Target Location; and Target Description, Method of Engagement, and Method of Fire and Control. Which option correctly reflects this grouping?
• Which projectile contains anti-armor mines?
• Considerations for planning defensive fires include the following:
• Which system has a maximum range of 50,000 meters?
• During a movement-to-contact, FSOs/FSNCOs should consider planning fires;
• How many radial arms are there on the OF fan?
• A priority target is annotated on the target list by placing the words FA PRI TGT or Mortar PRI TGT in the remarks column. What else should be specified in the remarks block?
• What are the two methods an FSO/FSNCO will use to execute SEAD?
• Targets acquired within a restrictive Fire Area may be attacked immediately if?
• Define - Priority Target.
• Where should you write the name, date, and location on the terrain sketch?
• Which field-expedient method can determine direction by the position of a shadow relative to an object?
• To request high-angle fire when in defilade, which element is used?
• A standard Call For Fire (CFF) is transmitted in how many transmissions?
• Using the hand method, three fingers correspond to mils?
• A ___ is an area in which any weapon system can fire conventional or improved munitions without additional coordination.
• What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for Artillery?
• Which of the following is not a standard product required of all fire support plans?
• Define - Restrictive Fire Area.
• On a schedule of fires worksheet the time block contains the actual scheduling data for each target within a schedule to depict duration of fire; usually labeled in 1 minute intervals. A dot on the schedule of fires worksheet represents what?
• What are the planning dimensions (width by depth) of an FPF for a 105 mm, 6-gun battery?
• Targets included in a group may be attacked individually.
• Define - Series.
• A tactical task is a clearly defined measurable activity accomplished by individuals and organizations which contributes to the accomplishment of encompassing missions: the following is not a tactical task.
• Which process is used to obtain approval for attacking targets with indirect fires?
• DANGER CLOSE belongs to which element of the Call For Fire?
• The second letter of the two-letter group at the beginning of a target number is assigned from battalion level to company level.
• Name the three types of defensive operations.
• In the Shift from Known Point method, the observer locates the target by describing its location in relation to a point of known location.
• Using RAAMS projectile (Ml78 or M174), how many anti-armor mines are in each projectile?
• What is the purpose of suppression fires in SOSR-A?
• What is the maximum range in meters for the M252 / 81mm Mortar firing HE?
• When sending your 9 line CAS Briefing, friendly location is sent how?
• What is the maximum range of the AN/TPQ-36 Fire Finder Radar System?
• Which option is NOT a key to acquiring an accurate target location?
• Which of the following are standard offensive operations?
• A _______ is an area into which no fires or their effects may be delivered except on a mission-by-mission basis after coordination with the establishing headquarters.
• The forward-positioning of mortars at the outset of defense is to allow deeper engagements of enemy forces.
• Where is illumination typically planned in defensive operations?
• If the side view of a BMP is 6.8 meters and you measure it as 2 mils in your binoculars, what is the estimated distance?
• Which of the following is not part of the AC-130H armament?
• Which of the following is a Field Artillery Standard Tactical Mission?
• T or F - With regards to techniques for sharing targeting data between Co/Bn/Bde FSEs, quick fire planning differs from deliberate fire planning in that during deliberate fire planning a majority of required targeting data is passed "top down" while during quick fire planning this targeting data is usually accomplished by "bottom up" techniques?
• Which statement describes the relationship between Concept of Fires and Scheme of Fires?
• Which smoke characteristic is described as a smoke curtain used to mask maneuvers between enemy observation points and friendly units?
• Which statement correctly identifies the three permissive Fire Support Coordination Measures?
• What are the two delivery techniques for the use of smoke?
• The observer describes target location in relation to a known point when using Shift from a Known Point method.
• When integrating an indirect FPF with the maneuver commander's plan, which factors must be considered?
• Using the flash-to-bang method, if the time between the flash and the bang is 11 seconds, what is the estimated distance?
• Which statement best describes the difference between a Concept of Fires and a Scheme of Fires?
• During the FFE phase of a CFF, if rounds are inaccurate, what actions should the Observer take?
• One of the keys to acquiring an accurate target location is self-locating to within how many meters every time you move?
• Which of the following is explicitly a planning consideration for breaching operations?
• True or False: One of the three control measures for CAS missions is the initial point; the initial point is the point that the aircraft makes his initial contact with the observer.
• What is the minimum range the MELIOS can determine?
• In a call-for-fire, how many elements are there?
• There are ___ radial arms that are 100 mils apart on an OF fan.
• Which is not a form of maneuver?
• This command is sent to the observer by the ship to report the last salvo was fired with incorrected data.
• Which statement is true about the two types of airspace coordination areas?
• Which three elements must be addressed when developing a 'Task' for your fires paragraph?
• Which of the following is a doctrinal example of a 'Task' for fires?
• Which mortar caliber is mentioned for FPF planning?
• What is the maximum range of the AN/TPQ-37 Fire Finder Radar System?
• Which of the following is not a principle of fire support?
• In a precision registration scenario where the last shot is nearest the registration point, the refinement should be
• True or False: Fire support coordination measures are designed to facilitate the rapid engagement of targets and at the same time provide safeguards for friendly forces.
• What is the maximum range of the M249 SAW?
• To determine the OT factor, the observer must divide distance to the target by what value?